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The CCA exam has 105 questions and runs 2 hours.
A producer broadcasts urea (46-0-0) on a no-till corn field at V1 in late May. The soil surface is moist with heavy corn residue cover, the air temperature is 78°F, and no rainfall is forecast for the next 5 days. According to 4R Nutrient Stewardship principles, which 'R' is MOST clearly violated by this application?
Correct answer: C - Right Place - surface application on residue without incorporation or rainfall promotes ammonia volatilization
A corn field requires 180 lb N/acre and 80 lb P2O5/acre. The producer plans to apply DAP (18-46-0) to supply ALL the phosphorus, then make up the remaining nitrogen with urea (46-0-0). How many pounds of urea per acre are required (rounded to the nearest pound)?
Correct answer: A - 324 lb urea/acre
Under which set of conditions is ammonia volatilization loss from surface-broadcast urea expected to be GREATEST?
Correct answer: B - 75°F soil, moist surface with heavy crop residue, no rainfall for 7 days after application
Two adjacent fields managed identically have these properties: Field A - 18% clay, 72% silt, 10% sand, 3.5% organic matter, CEC = 18 cmol(c)/kg. Field B - 35% clay, 35% silt, 30% sand, 1.8% organic matter, CEC = 12 cmol(c)/kg. Which factor MOST likely explains why Field A has the higher CEC despite containing less clay?
Correct answer: B - Field A has higher organic matter, and Field B's clay is likely a 1:1 mineral such as kaolinite with low inherent CEC
A tile-drained field has Bray-1 soil-test P of 80 ppm (very high), maintains 70% residue cover year-round, and has had no surface manure application in three years. Despite this, monitoring shows elevated dissolved reactive phosphorus (DRP) concentrations in the tile effluent. Which practice would MOST directly reduce DRP loss from this specific field?
Correct answer: C - Install a drainage water management (DWM) control structure on the tile main
A silt loam soil has a plant-available water (PAW) capacity of 0.20 inches per inch and an effective crop rooting depth of 30 inches. The crop has reached 50% PAW depletion. Assuming 100% application efficiency, how many inches of water must be applied to refill the root zone to field capacity?
Correct answer: B - 3.0 inches
A producer growing continuous Roundup Ready (RR) soybean scouts a field after a glyphosate application made at the labeled rate, at the correct timing, and under good environmental conditions. Palmer amaranth plants 6-10 inches tall are clearly surviving the application across the entire field, not just in scattered patches. Which is the MOST appropriate next step?
Correct answer: B - Apply a tank-mix partner with a different effective site of action (such as a Group 14 PPO or Group 15 VLCFA herbicide) before any new flush exceeds 4 inches in height
A soybean field at R3 has 230 aphids per plant on 85% of scouted plants. The published action threshold is 250 aphids per plant. Lady beetle and parasitic wasp activity is minimal, and aphid populations have doubled over the last 4 days. Which action is MOST consistent with IPM decision-making?
Correct answer: C - Plan to treat within approximately 7 days unless natural enemies build, recognizing that the action threshold is set BELOW the economic injury level to provide time to act before damage occurs
A soybean plant being scouted has fully-developed pods at the four uppermost main-stem nodes. The pods at the top four nodes measure 3/4 inch in length, and no green seed is yet visible when the pods are opened. According to the Fehr & Caviness staging system, the plant is at which reproductive stage?
Correct answer: B - R4 (Full Pod)
A wheat seed lot is labeled with the following information: 99% pure seed, 92% germination, 0% hard seed, 0.5% other crop seed, 0.4% inert matter, and 0.1% weed seed (no noxious weeds). The producer's target seeding rate is 1,200,000 pure live seeds (PLS) per acre. The seed contains 14,500 seeds per pound. How many pounds of bulk seed per acre are required (rounded to the nearest tenth)?
Correct answer: C - 90.9 lb/acre
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